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  • This is no conclusion. You can call it objective. All moral is based on subjectiveness: Different people have different morals. Especially ideology can have different morals. For example Nazism has a morality that the (in the eyes of the ruling party) "weak" kin should be exterminated and the "strong" kin should spread more and survive.

    This is a moral standpoint, and because objects like "good" and "bad" are based on moral, the political correctness of the moral is subjective.

    In ideology there is no right and wrong if you have no premises and no moral yourself, so to speak, if you're really objective.

    Calling something objective is in truth just reactionistic.

    But of course I think that in any debate there should be moral premises, like for example a democratic parlament should always have the premise: "for the people".

    In reality it's quite different sadly.

    Of course different people again have different understandings on what makes everyone in a democratic society happy, but for example right wing parties that praise capitalism or fascism there are definitely people that would gain from that.

    Capitalism has the consequence that the rich get richer, and so to not devalue the currency, the poorer have to get poorer, even if they don't get less money, but the amount of money that exists devalues the money of the poor. Inflation. And if political power can be bought through lobbying or corruption, there does not exist a democracy.

    Fascism has the consequence that one group of people become absolute and govern the rest which is definitely not democratic.

    • And if political power can be bought through lobbying or corruption, there does not exist a democracy.

      I have to disagree there, in that I think it's a bit more subtle.

      There will always be people who seek power for self-enrichment and at the same time those people who see having power over others as a great responsability (who would probably be the best in terms of fair and honest yielding of that power), often avoid it exactly because they feel the "weight on their shoulders" would the too much to bare.

      So you'll always have at least some people holding power who use it for personal upside maximization, including via corruption.

      Your really can't have a perfect Democracy totally free of crooks in power, as even if you magically made it so, lots of people seek power for personal upside maximization and sooner of later some would get through.

      Instead, what Democracy has is whole concept of the 3 independent Pillars Of Democracy, the Political, the Judicial and the Press, which watch each other and have some for of power over each other (the Press indirectly via influencing voters), and that's what's meant to create a sort of "dynamic" balance as crooks seek power but at the same time crooks in power are getting caught and thrown out (even punished).

      Now, if you look at some of the most flawed of Democracies (personally I don't think they're trully democratic because their voting systems are mathematically heavilly rigged to create a power duopoly) - the US and the UK - you will notice that the Press was subverted first (and this has been going on long enough and deep enough that some people genuinelly believe partisanship - i.e. taking sides in Politics, so submission to a Political Party - in the Press is a good thing) and then the Political system became more and more corrupt, with in the US the additional problem that even the Judiciary pillar has been subverted at several levels by the Political pillar (not that in the US there was ever much independence of between them to begin with as lots of top positions in the Judiciary are of political nomination).

      Anyways, all this to say that we'll always have pressures making political power "buyable", hence why its so important to understand the function of and protect the other Pillars of Democracy and their independence as they're part of the mechanics which pushes the other way, and whilst the system cannot achieve and remain perfect in a static way, it can achieve a dynamic balance that as the crooks get found out, kicked out and their deeds undone.

    • This seems to assume reality is only that what can be measured by humans currently. But decisions have consequences even if we can not foresee them. To assume that there is no objective morality assumes that consequences were random or exist independent from causes.

    • Capitalism has the consequence that the rich get richer, and so to not devalue the currency, the poorer have to get poorer

      I don't think that's true in an economy where the population is constantly growing. It's like saying in a utopia where everyone has the same wealth, having kids would make everyone poorer.

  • Half of the comments in here are a bunch of equivocations on the words.

    “Objective” morality would mean there are good things to do, and bad things to do. What people actually do in some hypothetical or real society is different and wouldn’t undermine the objective status of morality.

    Listen to this example:

    • Todd wants to go to the bank before it closes.
    • Todd is not at the bank.
    • Todd should travel to the bank before it closes.

    This is a functional should statement. Maybe Todd does go, or maybe he doesn’t. But if he wants to fulfill his desires, he should travel if he wants to go to the bank. The point is that should statements, often used in morality, can inform us for less controversial topics.

    Here’s another take: why should we be rational? We could base our epistemology on breeding, money, or other random ends. If you think I should be rational, you’re leveraging morality to do that.

    Most people believe in objective morality, whether they understand it that way or not. Humans have disagreed over many subjects throughout history. Disagreement alone doesn’t undermine objectivity. It’s objectively true that the Earth revolves around the sun. Some nut case with a geocentric mindset isn’t going to convince me otherwise. You can argue it’s objective because we can test it, but how do I test my epistemology?

    This is just a philosophy 101 run around. I’m a moral pluralist who believes in utilizing many moral theories to help understand the moral landscape. If we were to study the human body, you’d use biology, physics, chemistry, and so on. When looking at a moral problem, I look at it from the main moral theories and look for consensus around a moral stance.

    I’m not interested in debating, but there’s so many posts making basic mistakes about morality. My undergraduate degree was in ethics, and I’ve published on meta ethics. We ain’t solving this in a lemmy thread, but there’s a lot of literature to read for those interested.

  • An Aztec would not agree to any of that. They took slaves, they didn't allow women to vote because they didn't allow voting and women were second-class and they weren't interested in a fair and equitable society, which is part of the reason their enemies helped the Spanish take them down.

    So I'd say that your 'objective truths' didn't apply to a major human civilization.

    • Here is an adjacent argument to the one you gave:

      1. Some people think the election was fixed
      2. Some people think the election was fair

      Therefore, there is no "objective truth" to whether the election was fair or fixed.

      Moral of the story, disagreement alone does not entail a lack of objective truth. But the post was not about moral disagreement, it was about moral progress.

      Moral relativists have a hard time explaining why we should have moral progress. The moral relativist will argue that any action whatsoever will be a good action if there is a certain group consensus. So why should we fight for a more fair and equitable society if the society we have now is *exactly * as morally good as any other system we could enact? Even worse, if the majority of people in your situation believe that something unjust is the right thing to do, then protesting against them is morally wrong.

      • What does that have to do with my argument about the Aztecs? I don't see the connection.

      • Whether or not an election has been fair has criteria that can be objectively evaluated. With "moral goodness", those criteria do not exist.

        A moral relativist does not have explain why moral progress is good, because they disagree that you can even really define moral "progress". At best, there is moral change, and society always catching up to whatever that change may have been. Mortality is an inherently subjective concept, and therefore what is considered morally good can change, or rather: the 'moral goodness' of something changes over time. Someone in the past may have fully believed their actions were morally just, despite us viewing them as monsters now. And perhaps things we now consider to be morally just will be considered morally reprehensible in 50 years from now.

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