Why was France able to revert fairly quickly back into a dictatorship of the Bourgeoisie after the restoration of the Bourbon monarchy while the soviet union hasn't been able to do the same?
Why was France able to revert fairly quickly back into a dictatorship of the Bourgeoisie after the restoration of the Bourbon monarchy while the soviet union hasn't been able to do the same?
(Obviously I mean a restoration of a proletarian dictatorship in the case of the USSR/former constituent states)
Just from what I can quickly gleam from my limited knowledge of the reign of Louis XVIII and Charles X it sounds decently similar to what occured with post soviet russia.
counter revolutionary ruler is incompetent and authoritarian
conflict between reactionary ruler and progressive legislature
reactionary ruler rigs elections and gets involved in foreign wars
reactionary ruler dissolves progressive legislature and appoints their own loyalist legislature
But why was it that the French restored the Bourgeois dictatorship under the citizen king but the Russians and other post soviet states (save for Belarus if you follow the same line of thinking of Cheng Enfu) were unable to? Was it size? Foreign interference?