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  • Yes it is if you understand that “phonetic” is derived from the Phoenician civilization/culture, and that phenoms and phenology naturally derives the ph- sound from the “ph” not the letter “f” just because the Romans were lazy.

    Blame your lack of education, not the Phoenicians!

    Edit: I apologize— I didn’t intend for this to come so removed. I was trying to be sassy and playful, and went overboard. ¯(ツ)_/¯

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