Heh
Heh
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I don't understand the formula, but I understand Mr. Bean. +1
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If you have two charges
q1andq2, you can get the force between themFby multiplying them with the coulomb constantK(approximately 9 × 109) and then dividing that by the distance between them squared `r2`.q1andq2cannot be negative. Sometimes you'll not be given a charge, and instead the problem will tell you that you have a proton or electron, both of them have the same charge (1.6 × 10^-19 C), but electrons have a negative charge.-
q1 and q2 can be negative. The force is the same as if they were positive because -1 x -1 = 1
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In this case yes, but if q1 was -20μC, q2 was 30μC, and r was 0.5m, then using -20μC as it is would make F equal to -21.6N which is just 21.6N of attraction force between the two charges.
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If they are oppositely charged particles, I would expect that there is a force of attraction acting on them, yes.
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I am not saying that's wrong, just that there's 21.6N of attraction force between the two charges not -21.6N.
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But those are the same thing.
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No, if the force is negative it acts in the opposite direction
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Yes, and a force acting in the opposite direction of the distance is an attractive force.
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G is a constant,
m is mass,
d is distance from each other starting from their center of mass,
This measures gravitational force, F
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43 comments